Pathology
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Other
•
What carcinoma is CD30 positive?
Answer
132
Surgical Pathology
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What soft tissue tumor histologically resembles NS-Hodgkin lymphoma?
Answer
405
Surgical Pathology
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What type of crystals have been identified in fine needle aspirations of pleomorphic adenoma?
Answer
154
Cytopathology
•
What is the bony counterpart of soft tissue fibromatosis?
Answer
136
Surgical Pathology
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What is the difference between fibrous dysplasia and osteofibrous dysplasia?
Answer
114
Surgical Pathology
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Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia can be associated with what syndromes?
Answer
94
Surgical Pathology
•
What is Kasabach-Merrit syndrome?
Answer
119
Surgical Pathology
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What is the term for a granular cell tumor arising in the gingiva of newborns and how is it immunohistochemically different from its adult counterpart?
Answer
98
Surgical Pathology
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What is a differential diagnosis for CIN-2?
Answer
124
Surgical Pathology
•
What is Carney's triad?
Answer
217
Surgical Pathology
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The Epithelial Growth Factor Receptor family (AKA Erb)has four members. Which member has no known ligand, and which member does not have a tyrosine kinase domain?
Answer
112
Molecular Pathology
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Which are the five chromosomes in which Robertsonian translocations can occur and why?
Answer
137
Cytogenetics
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What tumors/conditions are associated with HHV-8?
Answer
120
Surgical Pathology
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What is the most common endocrine anomaly in Langerhan cell Histiocytosis (LCH) and why? Bonus: This endocrine anomaly is part of a triad. Name it and give all three parts.
Answer
114
Other
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What is the cause of the characteristic "ground-glass" appearance of hepatocytes in HBV infection?
Answer
134
Surgical Pathology
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Of the following pauci-immune small vessel vasculitides: microscopic polyangiitis, Wegener's granulomatosis, and Churg-Strauss, which one has asthma and blood eosinophila?
Answer
139
Other
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What is a common ultrastructural finding seen renal endothelial cells in all classes of lupus nephritis, regardless of disease activity?
Answer
102
Other
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Which member of the of the metalloproteinase family, may be more reliable than CD34 in differentiating DFSP from a dermatofibroma?
Answer
130
Dermatopathology
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What are some secondary causes of membranoproliferative (mesangiocapillary) Glomerulonephritis(MPGN)?
Answer
76
Other
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What is a way to distinguish between granuloma annulare and necrobiosis lipoidica by stains and IHC?
Answer
84
Dermatopathology
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What disease of the head, neck, and trunk occurs in patients with paraproteinemia?
Answer
105
Dermatopathology
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What translocation occurs in mucoepidermoid carcinoma?
Answer
89
Surgical Pathology
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Describe an immunophenotypic way to differentiate Down’s syndrome patients with AML versus patient's with transient myeloproliferative disorder ?
Answer
123
Hematopathology
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What tumor has a similar chromosomal translocation and immunostaining characteristic as DFSP but occurs most commonly in infants and children?
Answer
145
Surgical Pathology
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Granular cell tumors are positive for which of the following stains - cytokeratin, CD68, S-100 and PAS? (HINT: more than one of these are positive)
Answer
96
Surgical Pathology
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What is another name for "Bednar tumor"?
Answer
114
Surgical Pathology
•
Cowden syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition resulting in hamartomatous neoplasms of the skin, GI tract, bones, CNS, eyes and genitourinary tract. Can you name the gene that is mutated in the majority of Cowden syndrome cases?
Answer
87
Surgical Pathology
•
Infection-associated lymphomas derived from marginal zone B cells include which microorganisms?
Answer
169
Hematopathology
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Name the chromosome on which Rh gene complex is located
Answer
267
Blood Bank
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What syndrome is associated with angiofibromas?
Answer
218
Surgical Pathology
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What lymphoma is associated with HCV infection and cryoglobulinemia?
Answer
256
Hematopathology
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What is the most common cause of mixed cryoglobulinemia?
Answer
183
Chemistry
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What coagulation factor is structurally homologous to ceruloplasmin?
Answer
157
Chemistry
•
What benign childhood tumors are associated with iodothryonine deiodinase activity leading to refractory hypothyroidism?
Answer
140
Chemistry
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What is the most common trisomy encountered in spontaneous abortuses?
Answer
208
Cytogenetics
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What is the most common chromosome affected in lymphoma?
Answer
144
Cytogenetics
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What is the most common chromosomal abnormality seen in CLL that can be elucidated by karyotype?
Answer
129
Cytogenetics
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What is the most common chromsomal aberration in CLL?
Answer
139
Cytogenetics
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Of the chromosomal aberrations in CLL, rate them from best to worst prognosis.
Answer
129
Cytogenetics
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What are the chromosomes commonly affected in CLL?
Answer
113
Cytogenetics
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Which factors are phospholipid-bound?
Answer
134
Hematopathology
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1) Which factors are associated with bleeding?
2) Which factors are not associated with bleeding?
Answer
129
Hematopathology
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What are examples of acquired bleeding disorders not associated with prolonged PT and aPTT?
Answer
136
Hematopathology
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What drug is used therapeutically to raise VWF levels in disorders such as VWD and uremic platelet dysfunction?
Answer
96
Hematopathology
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What is the mechanism by which acquired B phenomenon occurs? What is the only blood group that can acquire it?
Answer
184
Blood Bank
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In accordance with NAME accreditation, what is the maximum yearly autopsy caseload for a medical examiner?
Answer
148
Forensic Pathology
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Patients with <i>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</i> infections may develop strong cold agglutinins with specificity to what blood group antigen?
Answer
226
Blood Bank
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What antibiotic should be used to test staphylococci for susceptibility to penicillinase-resistant penicillin-type drugs?
Answer
137
Microbiology
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What syndrome has been associated in patients with both colon and endometrial cancer?
Answer
241
Surgical Pathology
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Angiomyolipomas of the kidney are often associated with what clinical disorder/manifestation?
Answer
152
Surgical Pathology
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Immunophenotype for CMML?
Answer
154
Hematopathology
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CMML's most important factor in determining survival?
Answer
140
Hematopathology
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CMML progression to acute leukemia?
Answer
116
Hematopathology
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What defines CMML-1,CMML-2, and CMML with eosinophilia?
Answer
99
Hematopathology
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What is the diagnostic criteria for CMML?
Answer
104
Hematopathology
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What are the 4 WHO MDS/MPDs?
Answer
88
Hematopathology
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what is the current deferral criteria for preventing transmission of vCJD through blood transfusion?
Answer
192
Blood Bank
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What fungus is associated with the development of liver cancer?
Answer
183
Microbiology
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What are the cytogenic abnormalities associated with CLL (esp. those with prognostic significance)?
Answer
82
Hematopathology
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What is the immunophenotype for CLL?
Answer
87
Hematopathology
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What is the most rapidly proliferating tumor known to man ?
Answer
134
Hematopathology
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What does "villous lymphocytes" in a peripheral smear key you into ?
Answer
106
Hematopathology
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What does Down Syndrome and an adult male with a mediastinal germ cell tumor have in common ?
Answer
112
Hematopathology
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What cell line is affected in MDS associated with isolated del(5q) ?
Answer
85
Hematopathology
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What myeloid leukemia is associated with children with the clinical diagnosis of NF1 ?
Answer
85
Hematopathology
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you just recv'd a request for a k-betke. the results of the k-betke was 115 fetal cells/1000 adult and the infant had a 6.5 g/dL hemoglobin at birth? what would be you suspect?
Answer
152
Blood Bank
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What 3 diaeases are associated with McLeod's syndrome (absence of Kx)?
Answer
205
Blood Bank
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what is the minimum h/h to donate an autologous donation?
Answer
143
Blood Bank
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what is the maxiumum amount of blood allow to be collected per kilogram of donor weight?
Answer
129
Blood Bank
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if you were to aliquot a red blood cell creating an open system, what is the new outdate of the red blood cell?
Answer
131
Blood Bank
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what web site is a good reference in regards to current issues in transfusion medicine?
Answer
151
Blood Bank
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What hepatic disease is associated with diamond blackfan syndrome?
Answer
127
Surgical Pathology
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WHY are fluids like LR, D5W, NS (0.45%), antibiotics/other drugs and TPN incompatible with RBCs?
Answer
140
Blood Bank
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Which fluids are INCOMPATIBLE with RBCs?
Answer
144
Blood Bank
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What fluids are compatible with RBCs?
Answer
121
Blood Bank
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As a general rule of thumb, what's the expected effect on HCT and HGB from 1 unit of RBCs?
Answer
120
Blood Bank
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Given that Hgb levels, cardiac output, O2 requirements, O2 extraction ratio, etc. need to be considered for RBC indications, name 3 situations that MAY require RBC transfusion.
Answer
92
Blood Bank
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What are the contents of ~250 ml (350 ml with additive solutions) of RBCs?
Answer
97
Blood Bank
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Although not stocked in most blood banks, what are the potential indications and contraindications for whole blood?
Answer
97
Blood Bank
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What are the contents of whole blood?
Answer
97
Blood Bank
•
Who regulates blood products in the US?
Answer
123
Blood Bank
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What are the QC requirements for CRYO and granulocyte concentrate?
Answer
89
Blood Bank
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What are the QC requirements for apheresis platelets and leukoreduced apheresis platelets?
Answer
79
Blood Bank
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What are the QC requirements for platelets and leukoreduced platelets?
Answer
74
Blood Bank
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What are the QC requirements for RBCs and leukoreduced RBCs?
Answer
69
Blood Bank
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How long can CRYO be stored (and at what temp)?
Answer
92
Blood Bank
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How long can FFP be stored (and at what temp)?
Answer
84
Blood Bank
•
How long can WBCs be stored (and at what temp.)?
Answer
64
Blood Bank
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How long can washed RBCs be stored (and at what temp.)?
Answer
69
Blood Bank
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How long can frozen RBCs be stored (and at what temp.)?
Answer
72
Blood Bank
•
How long can PRBCs & whole blood be stored (and at what temp.)?
Answer
73
Blood Bank
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Which Ab causes the MOST SEVERE form of HDN and which Ab causes the MOST COMMON form of HDN?
Answer
126
Blood Bank
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Regarding HDN (Hemolytic Dz of the Newborn), which Abs can cross the placenta and which can't?
Answer
94
Blood Bank
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Would granulocyte concentate need irradiation (to prevent TA-GVHD) and filtration (to prevent CMV transmission)?
Answer
86
Blood Bank
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"Dosage" (when abs. react weaker with RBCs that have ags. coded for by a single gene as in ZZ > ZY) is most common in which 4 blood groups?
Answer
106
Blood Bank
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What neutralizes these abs: ABO, Lewis, P1, Sda, Chido & Rogers?
Answer
116
Blood Bank
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What ag. is actually a WBC ag./remnant (HLA) that is absorbed onto and expressed on RBCs and can be removed with chloroquine
Answer
91
Blood Bank
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Which are the 2 most common HTLA (High Titer,Low Avidity) ags?
Answer
107
Blood Bank
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Sda (Sid) is neutralized by what tasty snack?
Answer
126
Blood Bank
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In the Kell blood group, what phenotype is associated with all this: absence of Kx, markedly decreased Kell system ags, lack of anti-Ku, hemolytic anemia with acanthocytes, and association with X-linked CGD?
Answer
96
Blood Bank
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What are the consequences of Kell blood group incompatability?
Answer
90
Blood Bank
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What is the most common non-ABO ab. after anti-D?
Answer
101
Blood Bank
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What effect do thiol reagents (DTT,ZZAP) and enzymes have on Kell system antigens?
Answer
88
Blood Bank
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What lectin agglutinates Sid+ (Sda) RBCs (like A1)
Answer
79
Blood Bank
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What are the high and low frequency Kell Ags?
Answer
82
Blood Bank
•
Fy(a-b-) humans are resistant to what infection?
Answer
99
Blood Bank
•
What sort of HTRs and HDN are seen in the Duffy blood group?
Answer
77
Blood Bank
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Which Ab. does this describe: requires exposure, warm-reacting IgG, marked dosage, may have variable expression (like Kidd Abs.)?
Answer
87
Blood Bank
•
What's the most common Duffy phenotype in blacks (68%)?
Answer
86
Blood Bank
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How can anti-N be induced?
Answer
92
Blood Bank
•
Vicea graminea lectin is used as a typing reagent for what?
Answer
75
Blood Bank
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What's the difference between anti-M,N,S,s,and U antibodies?
Answer
89
Blood Bank
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Regarding the MNS blood group, which Ags are carried on Glycophorin A, and which are on Glycophorin B?
Answer
70
Blood Bank
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What type of HTRs and HDNs are assosiated with Kidd?
Answer
72
Blood Bank
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Which Ab does this describe: marked dosage effect (Ab may not react against cells with heterozygous expression of the Ag) and variable expression (antibody often disappears with time)
Answer
79
Blood Bank
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Which Kidd antigen is more common: Jka or Jkb?
Answer
107
Blood Bank
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What electrolyte abnormality is commonly seen in lymphoblastic leukemia and why?
Answer
93
Hematopathology
•
In terms of C,D,c or d presence, when are the compound Rh Ags G and f present?
Answer
70
Blood Bank
•
Rh Null syndrome/phenotype is characterized by what?
Answer
91
Blood Bank
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Regarding D- donors and D- recipients, who requires the "weak D test" (IAT/using AHG)?
Answer
75
Blood Bank
•
What % of unexposed D-(Rh-) pts will make anti-D after transfusion with one unit of D+(Rh+) RBCs?
Answer
76
Blood Bank
•
What are 3 reasons/mechanisms for the "weak D" (Du) phenotype?
Answer
81
Blood Bank
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4 of the 8 Rh haplotypes account for ~97% of blacks and whites... What are their relative frequencies in those 2 populations? (extra credit: their relative frequencies in Asians?)
Answer
64
Blood Bank
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What are the 8 potential haplotypes based on the presence of genes for the D,C,E,c,e Ags and their shorthand names? (ie, DCe = r1, etc)
Answer
55
Blood Bank
•
What are the 5 major Ags in the Rh blood group?
Answer
88
Blood Bank
•
What test is used to find the PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria) autoantibody?
Answer
83
Blood Bank
•
"IgG, specificity for anti-P, biphasic hemolysin" Which autoantibody does this describe?
Answer
64
Blood Bank
•
Which blood group is associated with acute HTRs, early abortions, Parvovirus B19, cold reacting naturally occurring IgM antibody, neutralization by hydatid (Echinococcus) cyst fluid and pigeon egg fluid, and Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria?
Answer
80
Blood Bank
•
What are the classic associations for auto-anti-I and auto-anti-i?
Answer
72
Blood Bank
•
Which is the blood group generally thought of as having "age dependent expression"?
Answer
69
Blood Bank
•
How do Le antigens get onto RBCs?
Answer
67
Blood Bank
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Do Le(a-b+) people make anti-Le-a?
Answer
68
Blood Bank
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What can happen to Lewis antigens during pregnancy?
Answer
66
Blood Bank
•
What is the frequency of Le(a-b-) in blacks and whites?
Answer
62
Blood Bank
•
Who is the best quarterback in the NFL?
Answer
111
Blood Bank
•
Can nonsecretors ever be Le-b positive?
Answer
79
Blood Bank
•
Regarding the Lewis blood group, what does the Le gene do?
Answer
60
Blood Bank
•
In regards to ABO testing, what's the basic difference between "forward" and "reverse" grouping?
Answer
71
Blood Bank
•
What's the most common Ab to cause HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
Answer
81
Blood Bank
•
What specificities do these lectins have?
Dolichos biflorus
Ulex europaeus
Vicea graminea
Answer
77
Blood Bank
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What are the relative amounts of (residual) H antigen by blood group?
Answer
62
Blood Bank
•
What ARE the single sugars added to the H antigen chain to make A or B antigens?
Answer
67
Blood Bank
•
What antigen is required for A or B antigen formation on RBCs or in secrretions/plasma?
Answer
70
Blood Bank
•
In regards to the ABO Group, what are the products of the Se and H genes (and what and where are the enzymes adding), and what are the gene frequencies?
Answer
62
Blood Bank
•
In regards to antigen response to treatment with proteolytic enzymes, which blood groups are categorized as enzyme "enhanced", "decreased", and "unaffected"?
Answer
68
Blood Bank
•
the low limit for pH of platelets is?
Answer
69
Blood Bank
•
what is the gamma radiation dosage for irradiation of a blood component?
Answer
59
Blood Bank
•
why due you irradiate blood components?
Answer
78
Blood Bank
•
after a red blood cell has been irradiated what is the maximum expiration date?
Answer
63
Blood Bank
•
What is the classic location of a myxopapillary ependymoma ?
Answer
104
Surgical Pathology
•
what is the most common cause of an acquired B antigen?
Answer
83
Blood Bank
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a routine blood donor (who works at a hospital) had mucous membrane exposure to a patient's blood. how long must they be derred from donation?
Answer
65
Blood Bank
•
Severe head trauma, clear fluid per nose, what test is better than glucose to decide CSF?
Answer
117
Chemistry
•
when enzymes are used to treat reagent red cells used in routine serological testing, what antigens are destoyed/denatured?
Answer
75
Blood Bank
•
for a platelet concentrate to be considered leukoreduced, the leukocyte count should be?
Answer
64
Blood Bank
•
Chromosomal gains such as trisomy or tetrasomy of 7 and 17 are characteristic of what renal tumor?
Answer
99
Surgical Pathology
•
What tumor occurs exclusively in the minor salivary glands of the oral cavity?
Answer
110
Surgical Pathology
•
Which salivary gland tumor is most likely to present bilaterally?
Answer
113
Surgical Pathology
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The combination of direct Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia and ITP with no known underlying etiology defines what syndrome?
Answer
78
Blood Bank
•
What immunofluorescence pattern is seen in dermatitis herpetiformis? and what class of immunoglobulin is needed to see this pattern?
Answer
84
Dermatopathology
•
What GI manifestation is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis?
Answer
81
Dermatopathology
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Antibodies to what specific antigens are found in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis?
Answer
82
Dermatopathology
•
Direct immunofluorescence of bullous pemphigoid lesions will display what pattern of immunoglobulin deposition along the dermal-epidermal junction?
Answer
75
Dermatopathology
•
What class of immunoglobulin is most commonly deposited along the dermal-epidermal junction of bullous pemphigoid?
Answer
81
Dermatopathology
•
the chido and rodgers antigens are not located on red cell structures, but on the ___________, which becomes bound to the red cells from the plasma.
Answer
84
Blood Bank
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if you lack MNSs antigens (glycophorin a and glygophorin b) what is your antigen type?
Answer
83
Blood Bank
•
What is the name for eosinophilic amorphous globules found frequently at the dermal-epidermal junction of Spitz tumors?
Answer
81
Dermatopathology
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What lectin has a specificity for Sda?
Answer
74
Blood Bank
•
anti-Lua and anti-Lub (lutheran) has what characteristic reaction seen in the test tube?
Answer
93
Blood Bank
•
Pilar sheath acanthoma most commonly occurs on what specific location of the body?
Answer
91
Dermatopathology
•
why do not most black fya-b- individuals make an antibody to the duffy system after being transfused with either fya+ and/or fyb+ blood?
Answer
92
Blood Bank
•
What can cause a false postive on a DAT from cord blood?
Answer
101
Blood Bank
•
What can cause a false-positive screening test for HTLV ?
Answer
90
Blood Bank
•
is an individual is positive for the following antigens C,D,e what is there most probable Rh genotype?
Answer
81
Blood Bank
•
what MUST polyspecific anti-human globulin contain?
Answer
94
Blood Bank
•
what does hydatid cyst fluid and egg whites of piegons and turtle doves have in common?
Answer
100
Blood Bank
•
Front type is AB, back type is negative for anti a, but postive for anti b. What could explain this?
Answer
110
Blood Bank
•
if a patient is C,D and e antigen positive (negative for c and E antigen), what is their most probable Rh genotype?
Answer
97
Blood Bank
•
what is the acceptable temperature range for the transport of red blood cells?
Answer
111
Blood Bank
•
What disease process other than Multiple Myeloma can give you "punched out lesions in the skull?"
Answer
168
Hematopathology
•
What antigens must an individual be positive for if they are f antigen positive.
Answer
139
Blood Bank
•
What chromosomal translocation is classically seen in anaplastic large cell lymphoma?
Answer
164
Surgical Pathology